Name: 
 

A&P - Nervous System Worksheet



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Which function of the nervous system is described as the capacity to process sensory information and direct single or multiple body responses?
a.
Sensory
b.
Integrative
c.
Motor
d.
Communication
 

 2. 

Nervous system functions can be summarized as sensory, __________, and __________.
a.
integration; motor
b.
motor; endocrine
c.
regulation; integration
d.
motor; cognitive
 

 3. 

What are the two major divisions of the nervous system?
a.
Sensory and motor
b.
Voluntary and involuntary
c.
Central and peripheral
d.
Somatic and autonomic
 

 4. 

Which of these structures is a primary component of the central nervous system?
a.
Spinal nerves
b.
Cranial nerves
c.
Sympathetic ganglia
d.
Spinal cord
 

 5. 

Which of these structures is a primary component of the peripheral nervous system?
a.
Pons
b.
Spinal cord
c.
Cerebellum
d.
Trigeminal nerve
 

 6. 

Which type of neuron is predominantly found only in the central nervous system?
a.
Multipolar
b.
Sensory
c.
Motor
d.
Associative
 

 7. 

What portion of the neuron is the first to receive the stimulus?
a.
Axon
b.
Cell body
c.
Dendrite
d.
Axon terminal
 

 8. 

Which type of neuron connects sensory and motor pathways?
a.
Receptors
b.
Multipolar
c.
Unipolar
d.
Associative
 

 9. 

What shape are most motor neurons?
a.
Multipolar
b.
Unipolar
c.
Bipolar
d.
Tripolar
 

 10. 

What part of a neuron contains the vesicles that store and release the neurotransmitters?
a.
Synaptic bulbs
b.
Nodes of Ranvier
c.
Axon
d.
Cell body
 

 11. 

What is the function of the ependymal cells in the nervous system?
a.
Produce myelin in PNS
b.
Transmit impulses between sensory and motor neurons
c.
Carry out phagocytosis in the brain
d.
Produce cerebrospinal fluid
 

 12. 

What glial tissue insulates and protects the axons of peripheral nerves?
a.
Microglia
b.
Myelin
c.
Endoglia
d.
Neurilemma
 

 13. 

Which glial cell produces myelin in the central nervous system?
a.
Astrocytes
b.
Schwann cells
c.
Oligodendrocytes
d.
Microglia
 

 14. 

What is the term for the small gaps between Schwann cells in the myelin sheath of axons?
a.
Nodes of Ranvier
b.
Neuronal nodes
c.
Glial gaps
d.
Myelin synapse
 

 15. 

What characteristic do all 31 pairs of spinal nerves share?
a.
All use the same neurotransmitter, acetylcholine.
b.
Each is a two-neuron pathway.
c.
They are all mixed nerves.
d.
The motor neurons on each spinal nerve pass through the paravertebral ganglia.
 

 16. 

Which vertebrae does the C7 spinal nerve pass between?
a.
C-6 and C-7
b.
C-7 and C-8
c.
C-5 and C-6
d.
C-7 and T-1
 

 17. 

Which of these cranial nerves is a sensory-only nerve?
a.
Spinal accessory
b.
Olfactory
c.
Facial
d.
Trigeminal
 

 18. 

The T12 spinal nerve is positioned between which vertebrae?
a.
T-10 and T-11
b.
L-1 and L-2
c.
T-11 and T-12
d.
T-12 and L-1
 

 19. 

The peripheral nervous system has __________ pairs of cranial nerves and __________ pairs of spinal nerves.
a.
12; 33
b.
7; 31
c.
12; 31
d.
10; 30
 

 20. 

What is the designation for the spinal nerve between the seventh cervical and first thoracic vertebrae?
a.
T1
b.
C8
c.
C7
d.
T2
 

 21. 

Which nerve is often compressed and irritated in association with frequent tension headaches?
a.
Accessory
b.
Trigeminal
c.
C7
d.
Cranial VII
 

 22. 

What is the name of cranial nerve V?
a.
Trochlear
b.
Trigeminal
c.
Facial
d.
Triangular
 

 23. 

What number is the facial nerve?
a.
V
b.
IV
c.
VII
d.
X
 

 24. 

Which cranial nerve innervates the abdominal viscera?
a.
Trigeminal
b.
Facial
c.
Accessory
d.
Vagus
 

 25. 

Which cranial nerves do therapists need to avoid compressing when applying manual techniques around the temporomandibular joint?
a.
Facial and trigeminal
b.
Trigeminal and accessory
c.
Accessory and vagus
d.
Vagus and temporal
 

 26. 

Which cranial nerve is affected in the pathology of Bell’s palsy?
a.
Trigeminal
b.
Facial
c.
Vagus
d.
Accessory
 

 27. 

A group of nerve roots that innervates the head and neck is the definition for what?
a.
Cranial nerves
b.
Cervical nerves
c.
Cervical nerve plexus
d.
Brachial nerve plexus
 

 28. 

What body region does the brachial nerve plexus innervate?
a.
Head and neck
b.
The upper arm only
c.
Full lower extremity
d.
Full upper extremity
 

 29. 

Major nerve branches off the lumbar plexus include the ilioinguinal, femoral, lateral femoral cutaneous, and __________.
a.
sciatic
b.
obturator
c.
saphenous
d.
tibial
 

 30. 

The gluteal, sciatic, and posterior femoral nerves are all major branches of which plexus?
a.
Thoracic
b.
Lumbar
c.
Sacral
d.
Gluteal
 

 31. 

What is the first step in neuronal impulse conduction once threshold stimulus has been applied to the neuron?
a.
Polarization
b.
Depolarization
c.
Repolarization
d.
Neurotransmitter release
 

 32. 

What is another term for nerve impulse?
a.
Action potential
b.
Electric impulse
c.
Polarizing potential
d.
Polarization
 

 33. 

Which of these terms describes the status of a neuron at rest?
a.
Polarized
b.
Depolarized
c.
Repolarized
d.
Bipolar
 

 34. 

What happens to the neuron when threshold stimulus is applied?
a.
Neurilemma becomes polarized.
b.
Neurotransmitters are released into the axon.
c.
The cell membrane becomes permeable to sodium.
d.
Calcium is released by the cell body.
 

 35. 

Which of these statements best describes the function of neurotransmitters?
a.
To repolarize the neuron after the impulse is transmitted
b.
To actively transport the sodium outside of the neuron
c.
To increase the permeability of the neuron membrane
d.
To form a chemical bridge to carry the impulse across the synapse
 

 36. 

Saltatory nerve impulse conduction only occurs on what kind of neuron?
a.
Cranial
b.
Myelinated
c.
Unmyelinated
d.
Spinal
 

 37. 

What type of neuronal pathway creates an immediate motor response to sensory input?
a.
Afferent
b.
Efferent
c.
Autonomic
d.
Reflex arc
 

 38. 

What type of neuron is the second neuron in a three-neuron reflex arc?
a.
Sensory
b.
Motor
c.
Interneuron
d.
Myelinated
 

 39. 

The six categories of sensory receptors are thermoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, photoreceptors, __________, __________, and __________.
a.
chemoreceptors; proprioceptors; nociceptors
b.
proprioceptors; pressure receptors; movement receptors
c.
kinesioceptors; pressure receptors; chemoreceptors
d.
pain receptors; motion receptors; vision receptors
 

 40. 

Which type of receptor is a specialized mechanoreceptor found in skeletal muscles and joints?
a.
Thermoreceptor
b.
Nociceptor
c.
Proprioceptor
d.
Motion receptor
 

 41. 

Which category of sensory receptor has only one type of receptor, all located in the same place?
a.
Chemoreceptors
b.
Photoreceptors
c.
Mechanoreceptors
d.
Nociceptors
 

 42. 

The olfactory and gustatory receptors are both examples of what type of receptor?
a.
Mechanoreceptor
b.
Photoreceptor
c.
Nociceptor
d.
Chemoreceptor
 

 43. 

What kind of stimulus are nociceptors sensitive to?
a.
Temperature
b.
Pressure
c.
Tissue damage
d.
Sound waves
 

 44. 

Touch, pressure, stretch compression, and torsion are all stimuli that will activate what type of receptor?
a.
Mechanoreceptor
b.
Nociceptor
c.
Thermoreceptor
d.
Motion receptors
 

 45. 

What is the name of the specialized free nerve endings that act as pressure receptors in hollow organs?
a.
Visceroreceptors
b.
Baroreceptors
c.
Hydrostatic receptors
d.
Fluid proprioceptors
 

 46. 

Golgi tendon organs, muscle spindles, and joint receptors are all examples of what type of receptor?
a.
Special sense receptors
b.
Nociceptors
c.
Proprioceptors
d.
Chemoreceptors
 

 47. 

Which of the following are receptors for vision?
a.
Golgi apparatus
b.
Olfactory cells
c.
Cochlear villi
d.
Rods and cones
 

 48. 

Where are the specialized mechanoreceptors responsible for equilibrium located?
a.
Vestibule and semicircular canal of inner ear
b.
Muscles and tendons
c.
Joint space and joint capsule
d.
Cochlea and tympanic membrane of inner ear
 

 49. 

What are the functions of cerebrospinal fluid?
a.
Shock absorption, nutrition, physical barrier between pathogens in blood and the CNS organs
b.
Chemical defense between the brain and blood, insulate the organs of CNS, excrete waste to the outside of the meninges
c.
Shock absorption, primary neurotransmitter of the CNS, medium for nutrient–waste exchange in the meninges
d.
Forms the blood-brain barrier, serves as the plasma for all the blood vessels in the meninges, insulates the brain and spinal cord
 

 50. 

What is the name of the connective tissue covering around the brain and spinal cord?
a.
Neural membrane
b.
Meninges
c.
Perineurium
d.
Epineurium
 

 51. 

What is the name of the middle layer of meninges?
a.
Pia mater
b.
Dura mater
c.
Spinal mater
d.
Arachnoid mater
 

 52. 

Which layer of meninges serves as the tough protective cover?
a.
Arachnoid mater
b.
Pia mater
c.
Dura mater
d.
Spinal mater
 

 53. 

What is the function of the pia mater?
a.
Supports and protects all of the interneurons
b.
Holds large blood vessels along the surface of the brain
c.
Protects the surface of the brain and cord
d.
Produces cerebrospinal fluid
 

 54. 

What is the name of the specialized capillaries that produce cerebrospinal fluid?
a.
Pia mater
b.
Corpus callosum
c.
Choroid plexus
d.
Arachnoid mater
 

 55. 

Cerebrospinal fluid circulates throughout the central nervous system via a series of passageways and chambers that include the arachnoid layer of the meninges as well as:
a.
ventricles inside the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord.
b.
white matter of the spinal cord and central canal of the cerebrum.
c.
choroid plexus inside the cerebellum and the transverse canals of the cord.
d.
ventricles, corpus callosum, and choroid plexus.
 

 56. 

The white matter of the spinal cord is made up of:
a.
fibrous connective tissue and myelin.
b.
axons of sensory and motor neurons.
c.
dendrites and cell bodies of sensory neurons.
d.
microglia, astrocytes, and oligodendrocytes.
 

 57. 

Which portion of the spinal cord is called the ascending tract?
a.
Ventral pathway
b.
Motor tract
c.
Sensory tract
d.
Lateral horn
 

 58. 

Which of these terms are synonymous with the motor tract of the spinal cord?
a.
Dorsal and lateral
b.
Ascending and dorsal
c.
Lateral and ascending
d.
Ventral and descending
 

 59. 

The autonomic motor neurons emanate from which region of the spinal cord?
a.
Lateral horn of the gray matter
b.
Ventral horn of the gray matter
c.
Ascending tract
d.
Dorsal horn and tract
 

 60. 

The spinal cord functions as a relay circuit between the brain and peripheral nerves and as:
a.
the “brain” for the autonomic nervous system.
b.
the center for the majority of the body’s reflex arcs.
c.
a routing and integrative center for all sensory input.
d.
another type of specialized neuronal pathway for somatic effectors.
 

 61. 

What is the dorsal root ganglion?
a.
The structure that protects the synapse between neurons for all reflex arcs in the spinal cord
b.
The enlarged portion of spinal nerves that contains motor neuron cell bodies
c.
A structure on the sensory root of spinal nerves that contains cell bodies of sensory neurons
d.
Another name for the posterior horn of the gray matter in the spinal cord
 

 62. 

What region of the brain contains the thalamus and hypothalamus?
a.
Cerebral cortex
b.
Medulla oblongata
c.
Midbrain of the brain stem
d.
Diencephalon
 

 63. 

What are the functions of the cerebellum of the brain?
a.
Maintain muscle tone, posture, and balance and coordinate voluntary muscle activity
b.
Carry out all cognitive processes, maintain consciousness, and serve as problem-solving region
c.
Sense and correct postural imbalances, maintain muscle tone, and coordinate muscle recruitment
d.
Serve as the body’s primary visual center and integration center for all general sensory input
 

 64. 

Which region of the brain is responsible for coordinating voluntary muscle activity and maintaining muscle tone and posture?
a.
Cerebrum
b.
Cerebellum
c.
Pons
d.
Medulla oblongata
 

 65. 

What is the function of the medulla oblongata?
a.
Sorts and prioritizes virtually all sensory information before sending it to the cerebrum
b.
Controls and regulates all autonomic nervous system actions
c.
Serves as the center for respiratory, cardiac, and vasomotor reflexes
d.
Serves as the sensory input station for all cranial nerves except the optic and olfactory
 

 66. 

What is the name for the region of the brain that connects the two hemispheres of the cerebrum?
a.
Midbrain
b.
Subdural junction
c.
Choroid plexus
d.
Corpus callosum
 

 67. 

What structure is nicknamed the “sensory clearinghouse” because it sorts and prioritizes virtually all sensory information?
a.
Thalamus
b.
Hypothalamus
c.
Diencephalon
d.
Pineal gland
 

 68. 

What CNS structure serves as the control center for the autonomic nervous system?
a.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Hypothalamus
c.
Thalamus
d.
Cerebellum
 

 69. 

The most important anatomic and physiologic connections between the nervous system and endocrine system occur in what structure?
a.
Midbrain
b.
Pons
c.
Hypothalamus
d.
Medulla oblongata
 

 70. 

What region of the brain stem contains the nuclei that help coordinate muscle contractions and control movements of the eyes, head, and neck in response to visual stimuli?
a.
Hypothalamus
b.
Medulla oblongata
c.
Pons
d.
Midbrain
 

 71. 

What is the function of the reticular activating system (RAS) of the brain stem?
a.
Transfers sensory information to the brain to maintain an alert state in the cerebral cortex
b.
Serves as the cross-over bridge between the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum
c.
Prioritizes incoming sensory information and activates the proper region of the cerebrum
d.
Coordinates and prioritizes communications between all four lobes of the cerebral cortex
 

 72. 

What is the anatomic term for the collection of connected structures in the brain that controls unconscious behavior and processes memories and emotions?
a.
Reticular activating system
b.
Cerebral cortex
c.
Medulla oblongata
d.
Limbic system
 

 73. 

What portions of the limbic system add emotional content to sensory input and are especially active with pain perception?
a.
Cingulate gyri
b.
Hippocampus
c.
Amygdala
d.
Mamillary bodies
 

 74. 

Which sensory pathway links directly to the mamillary bodies of the limbic system to stimulate strong emotional and memory responses?
a.
Gustatory
b.
Olfactory
c.
Visual
d.
Touch
 

 75. 

Which lobe of the cerebral cortex contains the primary motor and speech control centers?
a.
Parietal
b.
Temporal
c.
Frontal
d.
Occipital
 

 76. 

How many motor neurons are in an autonomic pathway?
a.
One
b.
Two
c.
Three
d.
Four
 

 77. 

Where does a somatic motor neuron originate?
a.
The ventral horn of the spinal cord
b.
The lateral horn of the spinal cord
c.
Collateral ganglia
d.
Posterior root ganglia
 

 78. 

The gastrocnemius and rectus femoris are examples of:
a.
Sympathetic effectors
b.
Somatic effectors
c.
Autonomic effectors
d.
Parasympathetic effectors
 

 79. 

In addition to the different number of neurons, what other structure(s) is (are) present in an autonomic pathway that a somatic pathway lacks?
a.
Gray matter
b.
Four nerve roots
c.
Ganglia between neurons
d.
Basal ganglia
 

 80. 

Which division of the autonomic system is known as the “feed-and-breed” system?
a.
Sympathetic
b.
Pre-cortical
c.
Limbic
d.
Parasympathetic
 

 81. 

What nerves have sympathetic pathways?
a.
Cranial and sacral
b.
Thoracic and lumbar
c.
Cervical and thoracic
d.
Lumbar and sacral
 

 82. 

When a person is subjected to long-term stress, the autonomic response is what?
a.
Increased sympathetic tone
b.
Increased parasympathetic tone
c.
Decreased responsiveness of the autonomic system
d.
Decreased sympathetic tone
 

 83. 

The physiologic changes that accompany a sympathetic response include increases in heart and respiratory rates, plus:
a.
decreased sweat production.
b.
constriction of blood vessels in the viscera.
c.
stimulation of glycogen storage.
d.
increased peristalsis and elimination.
 

 84. 

Glands, abdominal organs, and smooth muscle tissue are all examples of __________ .
a.
somatic effectors
b.
visceral receptors
c.
visceral effectors
d.
endocrine organs
 

 85. 

Which autonomic effectors have only sympathetic innervation?
a.
Heart, lungs, and stomach
b.
Blood vessels, intestines, and pancreas
c.
All smooth muscle, fascia, and adrenals
d.
Adrenals, smooth muscle in blood vessels, and sweat glands
 

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
 

 86. 

Saltatory conduction is faster than regular nerve impulse conduction.
 

 87. 

Noradrenaline is the neurotransmitter used by the postganglionic neuron in the sympathetic motor pathway.
 

 88. 

The minimal amount of stimulus needed to generate a nerve impulse is called an action potential.
 

 89. 

A neuron is polarized in its resting state.
 

 90. 

A nerve impulse is a one-way transmission that travels the full length of the neuron.
 

 91. 

The dorsal root of a spinal nerve connects to the descending tract of the spinal cord.
 

 92. 

Cell bodies and dendrites of the preganglionic neuron of a sympathetic pathway originate in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.
 

 93. 

The stomach, heart, and lungs are examples of somatic effectors.
 

 94. 

The ventral nerve root contains the axons of motor neurons only.
 

 95. 

The medulla oblongata is the “vital functions” reflex center of the brain stem.
 

 96. 

Inflammation of a nerve or nerves is called neuralgia.
 

 97. 

Paresthesia is an abnormal prickling or pins-and-needles sensation in the tissue.
 

 98. 

Radiating pain that shoots down or out an extremity is called referred pain.
 

 99. 

Idiopathic pain has an unknown cause or etiology.
 

 100. 

When pain decreases because of a belief that the treatment is effective, it is called the placebo effect.
 

 101. 

Taking an aspirin to relieve pain is an example of using anesthesia.
 

 102. 

A pain with gradual onset and longer duration is a chronic pain.
 

 103. 

Psychogenic pain is believed to come from the mind because it has no known physical cause.
 

 104. 

Pain that occurs in a predictable but separate region from its origin is called referred pain.
 

 105. 

An anesthetic is any substance that causes a decreased sensation of pain.
 



 
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